^Sublety too difficult for you?
You posed the question:
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the Federal government didn't write those debts, so why should it be accountable ?
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I answered giving another scenario from a previous post thus:
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If you re-read post 269, you will see that a banking liability, turns into a FDIC liability, which then becomes a Treasury liability.
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So the Federal Government didn't write the banking debts, but has become liable.
You do know that, when I refer to the Treasury, this means the Federal Government?